As I was doing the essential reading, there came two terms that I find quite amusing since studying them may lead to the answer I have been looking for all along. Back in the days when I did some English teaching in my country, there was a debate among peers over the IELTS speaking methodology, that is whether the student should be focusing on grammar correctness, or rather improving the speed of their talk while loosening up on the grammar parts, given that other aspects are virtually the same.

We usually illustrate this idea on a scale, with grammar on one end while the speed on the other, and obviously, the solid option has always been balancing between the two aforementioned. However, in real life situation, IELTS is a battle against the clock, therefore both students and teachers end up choosing just one to improve, thus leaving either one factor to insignificance for the sake of the remaining. In the end, the teaching community splitted into two teams, going on against each other, and to my perspective, this was also the same fight emerged ever since language was studied, maybe even before the term linguistics was coined. That is the fight of the two: description and prescription in linguistics.

Some may ask, why are these two connected? They may look distant, but the idea is the same. You have to keep your grammar on point (and on point I mean 11 out of 10) even if this costs you speed of talk, or you choose to keep things simple, following some basics then focus on rat-a-tat-tatting words out of your mouth. You have to strictly follow the so-called “heart of the system” or simply delivering your utterance, in respect of the language’s base.

As in any system, languages have rules words need to play by. We have rules to give people an idea on how to use the language properly. Rules give language a united form in terms of concept and usage, thus simplifying the learning or teaching process. If “we need go school” could communicate as well as “we need to go to school”, many wouldn’t have to study English grammar as long as they did. (or longer since there would be tons of grammar variations for just one language?)

But also, as in any system, rules are altered gradually over time. Those may go unremarked for our generation since the time taken for perceivable changes were far too long for a lifetime, but for Game of Thrones fans “me” as an possessive adjective instead of “my”? Under what circumstances, time, and conditions were “me” (as an possessive adjective) changed into “my”? Were there sets of signifier over the time for just one set of signified?

I’ve come to notice that there may be some rules that happens to be more foundational than others, which I definitely need more time to dig deeper into this matter for a full answer.

I would like to hear your opinions regarding this fight over the rule for a more open perspective.

Are you teaming up with the descriptivists or the prescriptivists? Why?